The Indian Constitution, Public Administration, Political System, Governance, Social Justice and International Relations is included in Paper One of KAS prelims. There were 30 questions from this section. 

KAS Syllabus: Indian Constitution, Public Administration, Political System, Governance, Social Justice and International Relations 

1) Indian Constitution and its salient features.

2) Functions and Responsibilities of the Union and the States, Parliament and State Legislatures – structure, function, power and privileges. Issues and challenges pertaining to Federal Structure – Devolution of Power and Finances upto local levels and challenges therein.

3) Constitutional Authorities – Powers, Functions and Responsibilities.

4) Panchayati Raj, Public Policy and Governance, Impact of L.P.G on Governance.

5) Statutory, Regulatory and Quasi-judicial bodies.

6) Rights Issues (Human rights, Women rights, SC/ST rights, Child rights, etc.), Important Acts.

7) India’s Foreign Policy, International Organisations, International Treaties and Forums, their structure and mandate

8) Judiciary in India – Structure and functions, important provisions relating to Emergency and Constitutional amendments, Judicial review, Public Interest Litigation, Land Revenue Laws.

9) Fundamental rights, fundamental duties and Directive Principles

10) Principles of Administrative Law.

Kerala PSC Kerala Administrative Service Prelims Examination on February, 2020

1. Which one of the following statements about Private Bill in Indian Parliament is NOT correct?

(A) It is introduced by any Member of Parliament other than a Minister

(B) Its drafting is the responsibility of the member concerned

(C) Its rejection by the House has no implication on the parliamentary confidence in the government or its resignation.

(D) Its introduction in the House requires seven days’ notice.

2. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the federalism of India?

1. Indian Federation is “an indestructible Union of destructible states”

2. Indian Federation is “an indestructible Union of indestructible states”

3. The term ‘federation’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution

4. The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the State List for implementing the

international treaties, agreements or conventions

(A) 1, 3 and 4 

(B) 2, 3 and 4 

(C) 1, 2 and 3 

(D) 1, 2 and 4

3. Considering different schedules in the Constitution of India, which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Fifth Schedule: Provisions relating to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes

2. Sixth Schedule: Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the States and Union Territories

3. Ninth Schedule: Acts and Regulations of the state legislatures dealing with land reforms and abolition of the Zamindari system

4. Tenth Schedule: Provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram

(A) 1, 2 and 3 

(B) 1, 3 and 4 

(C) 1 and 3 only 

(D) 1 and 4 only

4. Which of the following statements relating to Right to Property in the Constitution of India is NOT correct today?

1. Right to Property is a Constitutional Right

2. It is not a part of the basic structure of the Constitution

3. It protects private property against executive action but not against legislative action

4. In case of violation, the aggrieved person cannot move the High Court under Article 226.

(A) 2 and 3 

(B) 3 and 4 

(C) Only 3 

(D) Only 4

05. In India, a Bill is not to be deemed to be a Money Bill, if it contains provision for–––––

(A) the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax

(B) the imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties, or the demand or payment of fees for licences or fees for services rendered

(C) the appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India

(D) the regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union Government.

6. Which among the following statement is NOT correct regarding the election of the Vice-President of India?

(A) The electoral college consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament

(B) The electoral college does not include the members of the State Legislative Assemblies

(C) The electoral college includes the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies

(D) All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the Vice-President are inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision is final.

7. Which one among the following is added to fundamental duties through the 86th Amendment Act, 2002 of the Indian Constitution?

(A) who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years

(B) to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of Inquiry and reform

(C) to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures

(D) to safeguard public property and to abjure violence.

8. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Swaran Singh Committee: Fundamental Duties

2. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee: Three-tier system of Panchayati Raj Institutions

3. Rajamannar Committee: Two-tier system of Panchayati Raj Institutions

4. Ashok Mehta Committee: Centre-State relations

(A) 1, 2 and 4 

(B) 1, 2 and 3 

(C) 2 and 3 only 

(D) 1 and 2 only

9. Which writ among the following is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform, which can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose?

(A) Certiorari 

(B) Mandamus 

(C) Quo-Warranto 

(D) Habeas Corpus

10. Considering the powers of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha in the Indian Parliament which of the following statement is NOT correct?

(A) A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha

(B) Rajya Sabha can only discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants

(C) Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha have equal powers in the introduction and passage of ordinary Bills

(D) Only Lok Sabha has power in the introduction and passage of financial Bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.

11. Who among the following called Indian Federalism a “co-operative federalism”?

(A) K.C. Wheare 

(B) Morris Jones

(C) Granville Austin 

(D) Ivor Jennings

12. Which one among the following statement is NOT correct about the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

(A) Comptroller and Auditor General of India submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of the Centre to the Chief Justice of Supreme Court.

(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any state, after he ceases to hold his office.

(C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India’s salary and other service conditions are determined by the Parliament.

(D) Comptroller and Auditor General of India advises the President with regard to prescription of the form in which the accounts of the Centre and the States shall be kept.

13. ‘Per incurium’ judgement means:

(A) judgement stands as a valid precedent

(B) partially allowed decision

(C) having no bindingness in subsequent decisions

(D) rebuttable judgement.

14. Which one of the following is NOT true of the doctrine of necessity as applied in administrative hearings?

(A) Administrative decisions not based on sound necessity is justifiable.

(B) Necessity acts as an exception to bias.

(C) The non-application of the doctrine in certain situations would impede justice.

(D) It postulates that every kind of preference made in administrative decisions and its process need not vitiate an administrative action.

15. In order to form a new State, which Schedule in the Constitution of India needs to be amended?

(A) Second Schedule 

(B) Tenth Schedule

(C) Third Schedule 

(D) First Schedule.

16. As per the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 a ‘week’ means a period of  7 days beginning at midnight of

(A) Sunday 

(B) Monday 

(C) Saturday 

(D) Thursday

17. ‘Recess’ under Indian Constitutional Scheme means:

(A) interval between prorogation of Parliament and its reassembly in new session

(B) Parliament in session

(C) adjournment of Parliament

(D) dissolution of House.

18. Match the provisions in the Indian Constitution (List-I) with the country from which it is adopted in List-II.

List-I	List-II
Constitutional Provisions of India	Constitutions from which adopted
1.	Concurrent List	a.	Australia
2.	Suspension of Fundamental Rights during emergency	b.	Germany
3.	Method of election of the President	c.	Ireland
4.	Residual Powers	d.	Canada
5.	Amendment of the Constitution	e.	South Africa

Select the correct match:

(A) 1 (d), 2 (a), 3 (c), 4 (b), 5 (e) 

(B) 1 (b), 2 (a), 3 (d), 4 (e), 5 (c)

(C) 1 (a), 2 (b), 3 (c), 4 (d), 5 (e) 

(D) 1 (e), 2 (d), 3 (b), 4 (c), 5 (a)

19. Article 300A protects

(A) private property against executive action but not against legislative action

(B) private property against legislative action but not against executive action

(C) private property from both executive and leglslative action

(D) none of the above.

20. ‘X’ cuts a mango tree in a government land and sells the wood for money. He is liable under the Kerala Land Conservancy Act with

(A) a fine of Rs. 200 and imprisonment which may extend to 6 months.

(B) damages of three times the value of the tree and fine of Rs. 500 only.

(C) damages of three times the value of the tree and fine of Rs. 500/- or punishment of imprisonment extending to 6 months.

(D) None of the above.

21. As per the Indian Constitution, the essential qualifications to become a Chief Election Commissioner are:

(A) Should have been in Indian Administrative Service.

(B) Should have completed thirty five years of age.

(C) Should have practised law for not less than five years in any High Court.

(D) None of the above.

22. Which one of the following is NOT true with regard to India’s reservation to the provisions of Convention on Elimination of All forms of Discrimination Against Women (CEDAW)?

(A) to take measures to eliminate culture-induced stereotype role of men and women.

(B) to take measures in changing personal laws especially in matters of marriage, family, guardianship etc.

(C) reference of disputes to the International Court of Justice in case of failure of arbitration.

(D) to take measures to eliminate discrimination by any person, organization or enterprise.

23. Which of the following is NOT one of the core values of Public Administration?

(A) Efficiency 

(B) Equity 

(C) Bureaucracy 

(D) Effectiveness

24. “Entropy” is a law of nature in which all forms of organizations move towards

(A) Disorganization and death 

(B) Continuous improvement

(C) Growth and continuity 

(D) Rebirth and emergency.

25. Under the Indian Constitution, the residuary powers are vested in:

(A) the States

(B) the Centre

(C) the States and Union Territories

(D) equally divided between the Centre and the States.

26. The process of transmitting the idea or thought into meaningful symbols is called:

(A) Decoding 

(B) Encoding 

(C) Feedback 

(D) Reception.

27. Which of the following violates the principle of Utility of Command?

(A) Functional organization 

(B) Bureaucratic organization

(C) Manufacturing organization 

(D) Product organization.

28. The first Municipal Corporation was established in India at :

(A) Chennai 

(B) Delhi 

(C) Hyderabad 

(D) Mumbai.

29. Which of the following is NOT a feature of good governance?

(A) Accountability 

(B) Transparency 

(C) Nepotism 

(D) Rule of law

30. “Leaders are born and not made” is a perception based on:

(A) Contingency Theory of Leadership 

(B) Trait Theory of Leadership

(C) Fiedler’s Model of Leadership 

(D) Situational Leadership.

Answer:

1 D

2 A

3 C

4 D

5 B

6 C

7 A

8 D

9 B

10 D

11 C

12 A

13 C

14 A

15 D

16 C

17 A

18 C

19 A

20 C

21 D

22 C

23 C